bitul

Question

You were asked if a Jew made something with 99 percent salmon and one percent shrimp and you said that it is kosher, unless it was deliberately done to be mevatel the issur issur. But when a Jew makes a product with non-kosher in it, doesn't this by definition mean that he is being deliberately mevatel the issur (as opposed to a non-ejew who isn't doing anything wrong)?

Answer

Answered by Aaron Abadi

No. If that were the case, the law would state that "if a Jew made it...", but it does not say that. Rather it says, "if it was done deliberately." Look it up. AA