Kashering
Question
Many times on this site in the past, AA has stated that kashering may be done according to the majority use of a vessel, even for Ashkenazim. On many occasions, individuals pressed him to explain why he ruled this way in light of the Ashkenazic minhag, presented by Rama, to kasher according to the most intense use, even if it is not the majority. He didn't really offer a specific explanation, he just insisted his position was correct (which it may be.) Now, CYA has differentiated between Ashkenazim and Sephardim on precisely this issue. Who is correct? There is a similar AA/CYA dichotomy on the issue of glass dishes, with AA saying they are equally OK for Ashkenazim and Sephardim, and CYA saying that they are OK for Sephardim and no good for Ashkenazim if used with hot. Can you render a final decision on this point too?
Answer
Answered by Chaim Yisrael AbadiI dont know where AA said that we kosher according to the majority use even for Ashkenazim. If he did it, it was probably in a case where there was another reason to be lenient. There is without question a difference between Ashkenazim and Sefardim in the concept of the majority use of an utensil. In reference to glass AA was correct. My fathertold me that in the last few years he decided that nowadays glass is not bolea, like the glass of yesteryear even for Ashkenazim. CYA