Bittul

Asked by Jonathan · February 9, 2004 · Kashrut

Question

K'vod Harav, If I know for a fact that less than an otherwise pareve product contains less than 1/6oth of dairy, can I treat the product as 100% pareve and actually use/cook it with meat? Or do we hold that heter cannot be mevatel heter? Thank You

Answer

Answered by Aaron Abadi

Hard to understand the question... If a product has less than 1/60th dairy, it is 100% Pareve for all intents and purposes. AA